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Article Published in the Express Magazine Dated February 17, 2002
General Attorney : Rajiv K. Luthra

After a fairly long period of litigation, due to delay caused by the opposite party on one pretext or the other, the court finally passed an exparte decree in my favour. Now, I have received a copy of an application filed in court by the other side, praying for setting aside the decree on the ground that they suffered due to the lapses and negligence of their lawyer. Will the court accept such a plea?

B.K. Roy, Chennai

There is no definite rule prescribed for such a situation, where a party seeks to disown the acts of its advocate, to seek relief. This would have to be looked into by the court in the light of circumstances, peculiar to each situation. The Hon'ble Apex Court while dealing on a similar issue held that an advocate is the agent of the party. His acts and statements, made within the limits of authority given to him, are the acts and statement of the principal i.e. the party who engaged him. In certain situations the court may, in the interest of justice, set aside a dismissal order or an exparte decree notwithstanding the negligence and/or misdemeanour of the advocate, where it finds that the client is an innocent illiterate litigant. However, the Hon'ble Court also stated that "no such absolute immunity can be recognised. Such an absolute rule would make the working of the system extremely difficult." Amongst other issues the Apex Court examined the tenure of the litigation and the party's co-operation with the court throughout its pendency i.e. the intention of the defaulting party, whether there were any deliberate efforts to delay the proceedings. It took into account, the defaulting party's background and its competency to follow the court proceeding in order to protect their interests.Likewise, it may be expected that similar issues may be looked into by the concerned court while dealing with your case.

I had entered into a contract with a supplier for purchase of certain goods. The delivery was to be made fifteen days later. However, in between the prices of those goods escalated in the market. The supplier has refused to supply the goods saying that under the contract it was impossible for him to supply them. Is this not a breach on his part? What is my legal position?

Kabir Raina, Delhi

According to the Latin maxim "Pacta sunt servanda”, a contract has to be performed in the way it has been agreed upon between the parties. Hence, under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, ("Act"), unless a stipulation has been expressly agreed in the contract, failure on the part of the supplier due to enhanced costs maybe treated as a breach of the contract. The courts would not absolve a party from the liability to perform the contract merely because the performance has become onerous. This situation will not even be treated as a condition for frustration of contract as stipulated under Section 56 of the Act. Frustration of contract, making the same void, is said to occur when the acts under the contract become impossible or unlawful to be performed.

The parties to an executory contract are often faced, in the course of carrying it out, with a turn of events, not anticipated by them. An increase in expense/costs is not a ground of frustration and this does not in itself affect the bargain between the parties. The Hon'ble Supreme Court in a relevant case on the point has held that the Act does not enable a party to a contract to ignore the express covenants thereof, and to claim payment of consideration for performance of the contract at rates different from the stipulated rates, on some plea of equity.

If there is no specific stipulation in your contract for this situation, you may consider either filing a suit for specific performance of contract asking the seller to deliver the goods or in the alternative, claim damages as a remedy available under the Act.

 
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